The exam to be held on oct 7 and oct 14.This is the great oppurtunity to the job aspirants.download your hall tickets from the following link.all the best
hall ticket download
hall ticket download
Thursday, September 27, 2012
Monday, September 24, 2012
IBPS-RRB Probationary Officers Sep 2 2012 Expected Cut Off Marks
IBPS RRB Probationary Officers Exam Was held on sep 2 2012.The exam was easier compared to the last ibps exam conducted for other public sector banks on june 17.
Coming to the expected cut off marks if u can score 70% or above marks (not standardised score)u can expect the job.In the particular exam you need to get 140 or above to be on safe side,these students have high chances of getting job.
Students who are getting between 120-140 can expect interview and getting job depends on your interview marks.There are as many as 83 banks participating in this so dont worry folks any thing can happen.
MARKS U NEED TO GET TO BE IN interview ZONE-
REASONING-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE-MARKS 40-30
NUMERICAL ABILITY-DIFFICULTY-ABOVE AVERAGE 30-20
ENGLISH-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 30-22
GENERAL AWARENESS-DIFFICULTY-BELOW AVERAGE 30-24
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 12-17
Coming to the expected cut off marks if u can score 70% or above marks (not standardised score)u can expect the job.In the particular exam you need to get 140 or above to be on safe side,these students have high chances of getting job.
Students who are getting between 120-140 can expect interview and getting job depends on your interview marks.There are as many as 83 banks participating in this so dont worry folks any thing can happen.
MARKS U NEED TO GET TO BE IN interview ZONE-
REASONING-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE-MARKS 40-30
NUMERICAL ABILITY-DIFFICULTY-ABOVE AVERAGE 30-20
ENGLISH-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 30-22
GENERAL AWARENESS-DIFFICULTY-BELOW AVERAGE 30-24
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 12-17
Sunday, September 9, 2012
FCI grade III (General, Depot) Previous and Model Question papers
SSC FCI assistant grade III paper II & III exam date | format |syllabus| admit card
Assistant Grade-III in General, Depot, Technical and Account Cadres & Hindi Posts (AG-II & Typists) in FCI-2012
For result and number of total candidate information – click here
Paper II-
Cadre post code
General A
Accounts B
Depot D
Paper –III
Cadre post code
Technical C
Exam date -15-04-2012 (Sunday)
Exam format-
Question - Objective Type
Paper-II
(a)Quantitative Methods (50 Questions) 100 Marks
(b) English Language & Comprehension (100 Questions) 100 Marks
Time – 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon
*40 minutes extra for VH candidates.
Paper-III
Biological Sciences (200 questions) 200 Marks
Time -2.00PM to 4.00 PM
*40 minutes extra for VH candidates
ENGLISH PRACTICE EXERCISE- 3
Smith came to India to learn something about her culture and custom.
she cut the strip of photographs and gave one to her friend.
on the date of the function he will be in delhi.
it was fine summer day.
what have you been doing all the day?
you have to answer each questions on a new page?
each of them did not have a scooter.
they have each their own problems.
we are fascinated by life in earth.
man has lived in the earth for many years.
At the end she decided to go abroad.
In the end of the dinner prathibha spoke.
We make tables, chairs and cots etc..
He has ever arrived late.
Have you always been to Delhi?
There are n't enough jobs for everybody in our country.
The teacher is supposed to give a good example.
They go out on sundays and this sunday is not an exception.
our house faces to the river.
Hyderabad is far from Delhi.
Agra is n't a long way from Mathura.
She doesn't go swimming because she fears of the water.
If there is a gas leak, the building will go on fire.
She got off her car to inspect the damage.
Smith was judged guilty of murder.
They agreed to give him the half of the money.
They future of the country must not be in the hand of one man.
If she drinks tea, she gets headache.
They said that they were going on holidays to Ooty.
Anitha has just come back from holidays.
It is time Avanti made a holiday.
Satya is in hurry to catch the bus.
Her duty is to look after ill children.
Her mother is seriously sick.
Nobody cried in the funeral.
Gayatri is a lecturer in the university of hyderabad.
As it was raining, Archana stayed indoor.
Is cricket an indoors game?
The lorry was badly injure in the accident.
Two persons were badly damaged in the accident.
Juno was invited in a party on Sunday.
They invited Raju to a drink at the club.
Can you understand computer jargons well?
If I have the tools, I can make the job in an hour.
Don't say the same joke again and again.
Hard work is the key of our success.
Sudha went out to know what was happening.
I know that she is speaking lies.
They went to enjoy a luxury life.
Are you becoming bad?
Posted by Mohan Talari at 5:33 AM No comments:
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Labels: CORRECTION OF SENTENCES, ENGLISH PRACTICE PAPERS, FCI
ENGLISH PRACTICE EXERCISE-2
1. Ten candidates have passed one failed
2. He succeeded because he works hard.
3. Our teacher said that the earth moved round the sun.
4. We start early lest we shall miss the train.
5. I hoped to immediately reply to your letter.
6. I should have liked to have gone there.
7. He seems to enjoy his stay in Madras.
8.Sitting on the gate, a scorpion stung him.
9. He might went there.
10. They were punished for come late.
11. I shall wait for you till you will finish your work.
12. I have bought a cycle yesterday.
13. When I reached the station, the train already left.
14. How long are you working in this office?
15. I have not got none.
16. Nothing more can be done presently.
17. He will come back at present.
18. He tried hardly to win the race.
19. She has eaten hard anything today.
20. The news is much surprising.
21. I was very surprised at hearing the news.
22. The criminal was hung last week.
23. Although she was tired, but she still went on working.
24. Both ravi as well as raja were present there.
25. He not only lost his ticket, but also his luggage.
26. He washed neither his hands or his face.
27. No sooner do I finish this book then I shall begin another.
28. Hardly did I reach the station, than the train left it.
29. Please send the parcel to the address above-mentioned.
30. When I was a boy, I wanted to go to abroad.
31. According to us, we should not spend money on luxuries.
32. In the opinion of the writer, the government must pay attention to public opinion.
33. After the match, I had an ache in my legs.
34. My father couldn't afford paying for my education.
35. It is time I gave you your books again.
36. I would like to meet some of you back.
37. Soon he will be of my age.
38. As all you know her name is prasanti.
39. All of they know that john is a criminal.
40. She avoids to talk to strangers.
41. Do you believe ghosts?
42. She could not believe in everything he said.
43. Ramani is busy with doing the house work.
44. Please call to 802645.
45, Please call Priyanka with number 53407.
46. the committee is composed by a professor, two readers, three lecturers and a student representative.
47. You must keep the machine in a good condition.
48. You have to confirm us whether you have received the goods in time.
49. Ravi constantly got into trouble.
50. It is not possible to contact with them now.
Posted by Mohan Talari at 4:07 AM No comments:
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Labels: CORRECTION OF SENTENCES, ENGLISH PRACTICE PAPERS, FCI
ENGLISH PRACTICE EXERCISE-1
I am giving the incorrect sentences..try them and when you are done ask me for the key.
1. The audience are requested to be in its seats.
2. The sceneries of kashmir are beautiful.
3. The cattle is grazing in the field.
4. The people of our village is rich
5. Where is my spectacle?
6. Riches has wings.
7. The sheep are grazing in the field.
8. Time and Tide wait for no man
9. Bread and butter are his only food.
10. The chief minister, with his colleagues have offered to resign.
11. Either Ravi or raju have done this.
12. Neither of these two applicants were qualified.
13. One of my teachers live next door to me.
14. Gulliver's travels were written by Swift.
15. The united states have a big navy
16. Fifty thousand rupees are a large sum.
17. The committee have submitted its report.
18. The jury was divided in its opinion.
19. He gave me a ten rupees note
20. Each of these boys has done their homework.
21. Both Raju and Ravi have done his homework.
22. The collector and District magistrate is not negligent in their duty.
23. Neither Ravi nor Raju has done their homework.
24. I, You and he must work together.
25. You, they and we must work together.
26. If I were him, I would not do it.
27. Let You and I do it.
28. These presents are for you and I.
29. Himself did it.
30. One must not boast his own success.
31. Any one of these two roads leads to the railway station.
32. Neither of these three boys did their homework.
33. The two brothers loved one another.
34. Please excuse me being late.
35. The boys, who was lazy were punished.
36. I, who is your king will lead you.
37. He is such a man who I honour.
38. This is the same man who came yesterday.
39. Which is the best of the two?
40. He is wiser than brave.
41. He is cleverer than anyboy in the class
42. He is strongest of all other men.
43. He is the most cleverest boy in the class.
44. He is more wiser than his brother.
45. He is senior than me.
46. It is the most unique thing.
47. He is the wisest and honest worker in the office.
48. He is my older brother.
49. I am eighteen years old and my sister sixteen.
50. He never has, and never will take such strong measures.
Posted by Mohan Talari at 1:39 AM No comments:
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Labels: CORRECTION OF SENTENCES, ENGLISH PRACTICE PAPERS, FCI
Sunday, September 2, 2012
FCI BIOLOGY PAPER-2012
TEST FORM NUMBER: 012 KP 2
1. The ecological niche of an organism denotes
a) the habit of an organism
b) its status within a particular community
c) its structure and feeding habits
d) the climatic factors of an organism
2. Rubber is obtained from the latex of___________
a) stem of Euphorbia spp.
b) stem of Carica papaya
c) stem of Hevea brasiliensis
d) fruits of Achras sapota
3. which of the following does not require external water for fertilization?
a) Mosses
b) Cycads
c) Ferns
d) Liverworts
4. The sporangia of a conifer are located on the
a) scales of cones
b) tips of the needles
c) base of the needles
d) axis of the branches
5. The transfusion tissue is present in the___________leaves.
a) Dryopteris
b) Cycas
c) Pinus
d) Cycas and pinus
6. The number of Cotyledons in Pinus seeds are
a) single
b) two
c) three
d) many
7. The conical habit of Pinus tree is because of
a) efficiency of water movement in plants
b) mutual competition between branches
c) competition between neighbouring pine trees for sunlight
d) effect of auxin on the growth of stem tip and axillary branches
8. The largest ovules are found amon
a) Monocots
b) Dicots
c) Gymnosperms
d) Angiosperms
9. __________is an example of a plant which bears seeds but not fruit.
a) cycas
b) pea
c) pinus
d) selaginella
10.Which one is not true regarding energy flow through ecosystem?
a) Energy inflows balance outflows
b) Even energy transfer is accompined by dispersion of energy into non available heat
c) the organism near the beginning of the food chain gets smaller amount of energy
d) A shorter food chain can support a larger amount of organisms.
11. Spot the organism that are not symbionts
a) Rhizobium and root of legume plant
b) Nostoc and coralloid root of cycas
c) algae and fungi
d) Vanda and a n angiosperm plant
12. the natural cycling of carbon between the organisms and the environment is accomplished through the process of
a) photosynthesis and respiration
b) radiation and immigration
c) fermentation and oxidation
d) Isolation and dispersal
13. Motile sperm cells are found in all of the following except
a) cycas
b) funaria
c) pteris
d) rhizopus
14. ___________is an example of symbiotic association of an organism
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Root nodule of legume plant
15. Gymnosperms are characterised by
a) naked seeds
b) seed enclosed in fruits
c) winged seed
d) multiple sperms
16. ______ is the edible part of pinus seed
a) pericarp
b) Female gametophyte
c) Diploid perisperm
d) Endosperm
17. The tissue in the roots of Vanda that absorbs water from the atmosphere is called
a) Aerenchyma
b) Xylem
c) Phloem
D) Velamen
18. Quiescent centre is present in
a) root apex
b) shoot apex
c) Vegetative apex
d) flower apex
19) Tunica and corpus organization occurs in
a) Root apex
b) shoot apex
c) Cambium
d) Inter-calary meristems
20) Which of the following tissued form the bulk of storage organ?
a) parenchyma
b) collenchyma
c) sclerenchyma
d) Aerenchyma
21) In a forest ecosystem green plants are
a) the primary producers
b) the secondary consumers
c) the decomposers
d) both secondary consumers and decomposers
22) Various modifications in the form and structure in the leaves of xerophytes are meant
a) to protect from air
b) to protect form excess transpiration
c) to check excess liberation of CO2
d) to help in absorption of O2
23) Etiolation in plants is due to
a) Total darkness
b) Full sunlight
c) Vitamin deficiency
d) Virus disease
24) Sunken stomata are found in
a) Epiphytes
b) Hydrophytes
c) Mesophytes
d) Xerophytes
25) Opuntia is a cactus which is a
a) ephemeral animal
b) Succulent
c) Non-succulent
d) Cladode
26) The ecological factors of soil and its enivironment and their interactions with the growth of plants comes under the following factors
a) Biotic factors
b) Abiotic factors
c) Edaphic factors
d) Climatic factors
27) ________is an example of a free floating hydrophyte
a) Eichhornia
b) vallisneria
c) Nymphaea
d) Typha
28) An ecosystem cannot continue functioning without a constant input of energy because
a) it is lost at each trophic level
b) it flows in an ecosystem that lacks organisms that store energy
c) an ecosystem includes decomposers in its community
d) of climate change and fast urbanization
29) The largest amount of water that is available for the plants from soil is
a) Gravitational water
b) Capillary water
c) Hygroscopic water
d) Soil water vapour
30) Polytene chromosomes are found in
a) Salivary glands of men
b) salivary glands of animals
c) salivary glands of women
d) salivary glands of Drosphila
31. what are the chromosomes with more than two chromatids called?
a) Lampubrush chromosomes
b) Polytene chromosomes
c) Acrocentric chromosomes
d) Allosomes
32. Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in
a) chromosome DNA
b) plasmid
c) RNA
d) Polymerase
33. A codon refers to
a) a unit of recombination
b) a unit that can undergo mutation
c) a set of bases in DNA which can code one amino acid.
d) any functional unit of DNA
34. ___________helps in DNA replication.
a) Amylase
b) Ligase
c) Luciferase
d) Hexokinase
35.___________enzyme that helps in DNA replication
a) nucleotidase
b) Arginase
c) DNA polymerase
d) Protease
36. A color blind man marries the daughter of a color blind person. then in their progeny
a) none of their daughters are color blind
b) all their daughters are color blind
c) all their sons are color blind
d) half their sons are color blind
37) There is no marking of expression of genes in Neurospora because
a) it has a short generation span
b) it is haploid
c) it requires minimum number of nutrients
d) it is diploid
38) Tyloses are balloon-like ingrowths seen in vessels of
a) primary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma
b) secondary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma
c) primary xylem developing from adjoining fibres
d) secondary xylem developing from adjoining fibres
39) which of the following statements is wrong?
a) Primary growth causes increase in height whereas secondary growth accounts for increase in diameter
b) the bark is a tissue outside cortex
c) the cambium is composed of two kinds of initials
d) In woody plants cambium functions for few years
40) ___________is the characterestic of a vascular bundle of monocot stem.
a) open and surrounded by a sclerenchyma bundle sheath
b) closed and not surrounded by a bundle sheath
c) closed and surrounded by a bundle sheath
d) open and not surrounded by a bundle sheath
41) Parenchymatous tissue is charecterized by
a) uniform thickening
b) thickening of the corners
c) lignified walls
d) intercellular spaces
42) cambium is considered a lateral meristem because
a) it increases the height and diameter of a stem
b) it gives rise to lateral branches
c) it increases the girth of a plant
d) it increases the length of a plant
43) primary growth is caused by or the length of a plant axis increases by
a) apical meristem
b) Lateral meritem
c) Dermatogen
d) plerome
44) A meristem may be defined as the group of cells which
a) do not divide
b) conserve food and fight against dio-stresses
c) divide continuously to give rise to new cells.
d) elongate and add to the group of cells
45) knowing that albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man, presence of albinism in the children borne to a normal couple proves that
a) both the mother and father are heterozygous for albinism
b) the father is homozygous normal but the mother is heterozygous
c) the father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterzygous
d) father and mother are homozygous normal
46) In an E.coli according to the operon theory an operator gene combines with
a) inducer gene to 'switch on'
b) regulator gene to 'switch off'
c) regular protein to 'switch off' structural gene transcription
d) regular protein to 'switch on' structural gene trasncription
47) which of the following is haploid gymnosperms?
a) pollen grains, megaspore , root
b) pollen grains, megaspore, nucellus
c) Megaspore mother cell, root, leaf
d) Endosperm, pollen grains, megaspore
48) Cycas has two cotyledons but is not included in angiosperms because of
a) stems like monocot
b) large ovule
c) naked ovule
d) compound leaves
49) chromosome theory of heredity was formulated for the first time on the basis of the following..
a) chromosomes exhibit segregation and independent assortment during meiosis
b)there are a fixed number of chromosomes in each cell of an organism
c) chromosomes are the main structures in nucleus
d) determination of sex is through sex chromosomes
50) self-replicating cytoplasmic particles are capable of transmitting traits in inheritance to
a) mutagens
b) regular genes
c) plasma genes
d) operator genes
51) Nyctalopia is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin
a) A
b) B
c) D
e) E
52) Gout is characterised by the accumulation of
a) Urea
b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid
d) Ornithine
53) Number of polar bodies produced after first meiotic division during oogenesis is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
54) Centrolecithal eggs are found in
a) fishes
b) mammals
c) insects
d) reptiles
55) The indian born scientist who received the Nobel prize for having synthesised " Polyribonucliotides" is
a) Marshall warren Nirenberg
b) Venkataraman ramakrishnan
c) Amartya sen
d) Har gobind khorana
56) Baldness in man is an example for_______genes
a) sex-influenced
b) sex-limited
c) x-linked
d) z-linked
57) polymorphism may be developed by ____________selection
a) natural
b) directional
c) stabilizing
d) disruptive
58) Assertion (A) : Sodium ions move slower than glucose molecule across the plasma membrane
Reason (R) : Plasma membrane contain protein
a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct reason for A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
59) The niche of a population is the
a) place where it lives
b) geographical area it covers
c) set of conditions and resources it uses
d) set of interactions it has with other populationss
60) The science of improving the hereditary qualities of human species of future generations is called
a) genetics
b) euthenics
c) Epigenesis
d) Eugenics
61) The deficiency of___________vitamin causes Beriberi
a) Riboflavin
b) Niacin
c) Pantothenic acid
d) Thiamine
62) The synthesis of prothrombin by the liver cells is stimulated by the vitamin
a) A
c) K
c) E
d) D
63) Which one of the following minerals is essential for blood coagulation?
a) calcium
b) phosphorus
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium
64) Limulus is an example of a living fossil that belongs to
a) Onychophora
b) Arachnida
c) Mollusca
d) Ratitae
65) First recombinat vaccine is available for
a) HIV
b) small pox
c) hepatits B
d) Polio
66) Polio is spread through
a) Mosquito
b) water contamination
c) air contamination
d) direct contact
67) which of the following is not correct about the size of the organisms?
a) viruses- 0.07-0.10 microns
b) amoeba- 8.00-15.0 microns
c) Bacteria-0.5-2.50 microns
d) Euglena-100-200 microns
68) Acetylcholine is secreted by
a) Endothelial cells
b) nerve cells
c) brunner's cells
d) pancreatic exocrine cells
69) The term chromosome was coined by
a) w. flemming
b) w. waldeyer
c) Richard Altman
d) Seymour benzer
70) In which stage does the reduction in chromosome number takes during meiosis?
a) prophase-I
b) anaphase-I
c) Metaphase-I
d) Metaphase-II
71) A cross between an F1 hybrid and any one of the parents from which it is derived is
a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) back cross
d) test cross
72) alpha-thassaemia major is
a) inability to synthesize adult haemoglobin
b) premature red blood cell destruction
c) haemolysis and shortening of red blood life span
d) no functional and separated delta and b-globin chain genes
73) crossing over brings
a) cytoplasmic reorganization
b) recombination of genes
c) complete linkage
d) no significant change
74) somatic hybrids are produced by
a) protoplasmic fusion
b) tissue culture
c) pollen culture
d) hybridoma process
75) ___________enzyme catalyses the removal of hydrogen from one substrate and passes it on to a second substrate.
a) oxidase
b) dehydrogenase
c) oxygenase
d) hydrolases
76) wilson's disease is due to the deficiency of
a) cobalt
b) iodine
c) copper
d) flourine
77) daily requirement of vitamin B1 is______mg
a) 1.5 to 2.0
b) 0.5 to 1.0
c) 3 to 5
d) 1 to 2
78) These enzymes exist in two or more forms which have the same function, but they differ physically and chemically..
a) Apoenzymes
b) multienzymes
c) exoenzymes
d) Isoenzymes
79) Choose the wrong pair
a) flames cells- platyhelminthes
b) Nephridium- Amphioxus
c) malphigian tubules-Insects
d) green glands- crustacea
80)Egg with minimal yolk evenly distributed called as
a) Isolecithal
b) Telolecithal
c) Alecithal
d) Centrolecithal
81) Hydrocholoric acid in the stomach is secreted by
a) Argentaffin cells
b) peptic cells
c) Mucous neck cells
d) Oxyntic cells
82) Enzyme sucrose converts sucrose into
a) Glucose+ Fructose
b) Glucose+ Glucose
c) Glucose+ Galactose
d) Glucose+ Maltose
83) If the centromere divides the chromosome into two unequal arms, it is termed as
a) telocentric
b) acroccentric
c) submetacentric
d) metacentric
84) ____________is an autoimmune disease.
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) meningitis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Hepatitis
85) Development of gut is called as
a) Neurogenesis
b) Notogenesis
c) Mesogenesis
d) Enterogenesis
86) The process by which cells gradually specialize to undergo changes in shape and function is known as ____________ differentiation.
a) morphological
b) physiological
c) chemical
d) cytological
87) which of the following statements is not correct about test tube baby?
a) this method provides baby to infertile couple
b) people who produce fertile egg but their health may not permit to bear children
c) it provides oppurtunity to get babies of desired sex.
d) the rate of success is high..
88) which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of cancer?
a) a tumour arises from an existing tissue or cells of the body
b) they have greater potentiality for growth and multiplication
c) they carry out the functions of normal adult cells
d) they have large and irregular nuclei..
89) carcinoma means
a) a tumour arising from any connective tissue
b) a tumour arising from fibrous tissues.
c) a tumour arising from epithelial cells.
d) tumours of bone
90) first land vertebrates - amphibians developed during _______ period
a) devonian
b) cambrian
c) ordovician
d) silurian
91) which of the following is not an arthropod character exhibited by peripatus?
a) clawed and pseud segmented walking legs
b) presence of thick cuticle
c) presence of trachea as respiratory organ
d) presence of antennae
92) select the correct sequence of evolution with reference to elephant
a) meritherium- stegodon-mammoth-palaemastodon-elephas-loxondonta
b) meritherium-mammoth-palaemastodon-stegodon-elephas-loxodonta
c) meritherium-palaemastodon-stegodon-mammoth-elephas-loxodont
d) meritherium-palaemastodon-elephas-stegodon-mammoth-loxodonta
93) Assertion (A) : Dark-skinned people and blacks are more prone to UV exposure.
Reason (R) : Efficiency of UV rays as carcinogen depends on melanin pigmentation.
a) A is correct, but R is wrong
b) A is wrong, but R is correct
c) Both A and R are correct, and R is the explanation for A
d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the explanation for A
94) which of these is a non-essential amino acid?
a) valine
b) Glycine
c) Lycine
d) Tryptophan
95) Suppression of gene of one locus by a gene in other locus is called
a) Epistasis
b) Pleiotrophy
c) Co-dominance
d) Incomplete dominance
96) Mobile segments of DNA that can disrupt the function of the gene that they insert into and cause mutation are known as
a) meiosis
b) transposons
c) mutagens
d) missense
97) the type of interaction between two species where protozoan Trichonympha lives in the gut of termites for cellulose digestion is referred to as
a) commensalism
b) mutualism
c) neutralism
d) parasitism
98) centres for regulation of heart beat are situated in the brain at
a) cerebral hemispheres
b) medulla oblongata
c) cerebellum
d) pons varolii
99) A: Insulin increases conversion of glucose into glycogen
B: Insulin increases the oxidation of glucose
c: Insulin reduces blood sugar level
a) A and B only are correct
b) A and C only are correct
c) A, B and C are correct and A and B are not the reason for C
d) A, B and C all are correct and A and B are the correct reason for C
100) which of these is secreted by corpus luteum in a pregnant woman
a) progesterone
b) estrogen
c) androgen
d) relaxin
101) Amino acids are used as food additives for which of the following reasons?
a) As natural antibiotics
b) As natural growth inhibitors
c) For nutritive purposes
d) As antioxidants
102) Lycopene is an important antioxidant normally present in high levels in
a) Artichokes
b) Banans
c) Tomatoes
d) Soyabeans
103) The most common hydrocarbon in naturl gas is
a) methane
b) butane
c) propane
d) ethane
104) The main effect of DDT on birds is
a) fewer feathers
b) reduced growth
c) blindness
d) thinner egg shell
105) which of the following is most hazardous?
a) crop waste
b) yard waste
c) paper waste
d) battery
106) The fertile part of soil is
a) mineral matter
b) soil air
c) humus
d) soil water
1o7) the main source of air pollution is
a) factory exhaust
b) automobile exhaust
c) firewood
d) bad breath
108) majority of all living species on the earth are found in
a) Tundra region
b) antarctica
c) tropical rainforest
d) temperate rainforest
109) cell organelle found only in plants
a) mitochondria
b) plastids
c) golgi complex
d) ribosomes
110) enzymes are polymers of
a) amino acids
b) fatty acids
c) sugar
d) proteins
111) which trait can effectively be conferred into a plant by a transgene?
a) resistance to insects
b) resistance to humans
c) tolerance to light
d) tolerance to snowfall
112) what is the general term used to describe the degradation of pollutants using a biological approach?
a) biostimulation
b) bioremediation
c) biodegradation
d) bioprocessing
113) which genera of micro organisms have the most diverse pathways for bioremediation?
a) pseudomonas
b) salmonella
c) legionella
d) colletotrichum
114) what is nanotechnology?
a) the individual manipulation of molecules and atoms to create materials with novel or improved properties
b) the creation of new terms to describe very small, almost unimaginable particles in physics.
c) the terms used to describe the size of cellular components
d) the transition of molecular biology into the physical science..
115) the colorless, odourless, tasteless, radioactive gas present within homes and buildings is
a) argon
b) radon
c) xenon
d) krypton
116) pedology is the study of
a) rock
b) coal
c) ecosystem
d) soil
117) the absorption of zinc in the human digestive tract my be inhibited by the presence of
a) plant fibre
b) animal fibre
c) water
d) oil
118) A species that is unique to a defined place or region and not found anywhere else is called
a) endangered
b) endemic
c) indigenous
d) extinct
119) the main cause of global rising sea levels is
a) thermal expansion
b) melting glaciers
c) melting of polar ice
d) melting of antarctica
120) anemometer is used to measure
a) wind density
b) wind velocity
c) wind speed
d) wind gravity
121) ketone bodies are produced by
a) brain
b) liver
c) kidney
d) muscles
122) normal urine has the following components except
a) chlorides
b) glucose
c) urea
d) creatinine
123) the most penetrating rays are
a) alpha rays
b) beta rays
c) gamma rays
d) delta rays
124) at what stage of cell division does the centromere divide?
a) prophase
b) telophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
125) genetic mapping is based on the linkage between
a) loci
b) muton
c) recon
d) cistron
126) most of the plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in the form of
a) nitrate
b) nitrite
c) nitric acid
d) nitrogen gas
127) the shape of metacentric chromosome is
a) T-shaped
b) rod shaped
c) S- shaped
d) V-shaped
128) which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder?
a) diabetes mellitus
b) haemolytic anemia
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Cholera
129) The natural anticoagulant of blood in the vessels is
a) EDTA
b) oxalate
c) citrate
d) Heparin
130) western blotting technique is used to detect the
a) proteins
b) DNA
c) m RNA
d) r RNA
131) which of the following is not a renewable energy resource?
a) wood
b) wave
c) biogas
d) natural gas
132) streptomycin is used to cure the disease caused by
a) bacteria
b) virus
c) yeast
d) fungi
133) antihaemorrhagic vitamin is also called as
a) E
b) B
c) D
d) B12
134) The study of action of drugs is known as
a) pharmacognosy
b) pharmacology
c) pathology
d) parasitology
135) Cholesterol level in blood is increased in all except
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Obsructive jaundice
c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Hperthyroidism
136) COLA refers to
a) cystine, ornithine, leucine, arginine
b) cystine, ornithine, lysine, alanine
c) cystine, ornithine, leucine, alanine
d) cystine, ornithine, lysine, arginine
137) Erythropoietin, the hormone involved in synthesis of RBCs, is released to blood circulation by
a) RBC
b) bone marrow erythroid progenitor cells
c) renal cells
d) hepatic cells
138) which among the following does not bind calcium?
a) calcitonin
b) calbindin
c) calcineurin
d) calmodulin
139) plasma bicarbonate is transported across red blood cells by
a) spectrin
b) ankyrin
c) carbonic anhydrase
d) Band 3 protein
140) Assertion (A) : animals store energy in the form of triglycerides
Reason (R) : triglycerides can be converted to glucose whenever needed
a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true and R is false
d) A is false and R is true
141) the device used to introduce air into the liquid in a fermentor is termed bas
a) impeller
b) baffles
c) sparger
d) thermostat
142) the indian collection of Industrial micro organism is located at
a) chandigarh
b) pune
c) punjab
d) delhi
143) the first virus crystallised by stanley in 1935 was
a) cauliflower mosaic virus
b) tobacco mosaic virus
c) Gemini virus
d) wound tumour virus
144) during world war II the microorganism used as an agent of bio-terrorism was
a) bacillus anthracis
b) brucella abortus
c) Yersinia pestis
d) clostridium botulinum
145) the complete viral particle is known as
a) virion
b) viroid
c) prion
d) virusoid
146) the discovery of human blood group was made by
a) Emil Von Behring
b) Ehrlich
c) Landsteiner
d) Milstein
147) Pencillin the wonder drug was discovered first by alexander fleming from the culture of
a) pencillium notatum
b) pencillium chrysogenum
c) pencillium funiculosum
d) penicillium stoloniferum
148) the term cistron means a
a) unit of function
b) unit of mutation
c) unit of recombination
d) unit of linkage
149) who developed the Rabies vaccine?
a) robert koch
b) robert gallo
c) walther hesse
d) Lousi pasteur
150) Sugar in the nuclotide is
a) hexose
b) pentose
c) priose
d) heptose
151) more dominant group of miccroorgnisms in the soil is
a) bacteria
b) fungi
c) actinomycetes
d) protozoa
152) TDT is
a) thermal delay time
b) thermal divide time
c) thermal death temperature
d) thermal death time
153) the first viral pathogen discovered was
a) HIV
b) TMV
c) HPV
d) YMV
154) plague is caused by
a) bacterium
b) Fungus
c) Alga
d) virus
155) Selman A walkman was awarded nobel prize for the discover of
a) pencillin
b) streptomyces
c) streptomycin
d) pencillium
156) Robert koch has been awarded nobel prize in 1905 for the discovery of
1) antrax
2) cholera
3) tuberculosis
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 alone
d) 3 alone
157) organisms which utilize simple inorganic compounds are termed as
a) phototrophs
b) autotrophs
c) heterotrophs
d) nectortrophs
158) cross wall formation during cell division is accelerated by
a) ribosomes
b) lysosomes
c) endosomes
d) mesosomes
159) the group of bacteria which includes obligte intracellular parsites is
a) Rickettsiasis
b) mollicutes
c) Archaeobacteria
d) actinomycetes
160) which of the following methods is employed for disposal of sludge that is contaminated with heavy metals heavily?
a) incinertion
b) drying
c) Landfilling
d) Composting
161) The addition of sugar to an egg_____ the heat stability or proteins.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) increases and then decreases
162) Deteriortion of fat in the presence of oxygen is due to the enzyme
a) Lipase
b) Protease
c) Lipoxygenase
d) peptidase
163) In cheese manufacture curd is formed by the addition of
a) renin
b) protease
c) peptidase
d) amylase
164) Excessive intake of polished rice causes deficiency of
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) K
165) The fat content of toned milk should be
a) less than 1.5%
b) less than 3%
c) more than 3%
d) more than 5%
166) Bitter pit is a
a) chemicl injury
b) physiological injury
c) mechanical injury
d) microbial injury
167) wht is the TSS of fruit syrup?
a) 20%
b) 45%
c) 65%
d) 80%
168) Diethyl pyrocarbonate is used as a preservative for
a) spices
b) fruit juices
c) nuts
d) vegetables
169) a toxic element which may contaminate food is
a) zinc
b) copper
c) lead
d) calcium
170) Tofu is a processed product of
a) Kidney bean
b) navy bean
c) broad bean
d) soyabean
171) Appertizing is a process called canning and is named after
a) nicholes apert
b) micheal apert
c) john apert
d) williams apert
172) consider the following statements
A. Butter is an example for oil in water emulsion
B. Milk is an example for water in oil emulsion
a) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
b) Statement B is correct and A is wrong
c) Statements A and B are wrong
d) Statements A and B are correct
173) consider the following statements
A. Soyabean contains 40% protein and 20 % fat.
B. The quality of protein is poor because of the presence of the trypsin inhibitor
a) statement A is correct and the explanation given in B is wrong
b) statement A is wrong and the explanation given in B is correct
c) statements A and B are correct
d) statements A and B are wrong
174) choose the best answer
The toxin found in groundnut kernel is
a) aflotoxin
b) patulin
c) aminotoxin
d) paratoxin
175) Decomposition of carbohydrates by microorganisms or enzymes is called as
a) pasturisation
b) fermentation
c) canning
d) dextrinisation
176) consider the following statements:
A. Freezing at very low temperature (-60 degrees C) is cryogenic freezing
B. The refregerants used are oxygen and neon
a) A and B are true
B) A is true, B is false
c) B is true, A is false
d) A and B are false
177) consider the following statements:
A. Milk is rich in calcium and vitamin D
B. On heating milk combines with casein and is converted to calcium caseinate
a) statement A is correct and B is wrong
b) statement A and B are correct
c) statements A and B are wrong
d) statement A is wrong and B is correct
178) Freeze crack is seen when foods are frozen by
a) air freezing
b) contact freezing
c) immersion freezing
d) cryogenic freezing
179) hedonic rating test is used to measure
a) sensitivity
b) preference
c) difference
d) quality
180) puffed products are dried to a moisture content less than
a) 12%
b) 8%
c) 4%
d) 16%
181) in which region of india, is shifting cultivation widely followed?
a) south
b) north
c) north-east
d) north-west
182) the toxic substance gossypol is formed in
a) rapeseed
b) lineseed
c) cotton
d) fababean
183) pigeonpea sterility mosaic is transmitted by
a) aceria cajani
b) besmisia tabaci
c) Myzus persicae
d) orosius albicinctus
184) the state which ranks first in sugrcane productivity in India is
a) maharashtra
b) uttar pradesh
c) tamil nadu
d) karnataka
185) frequent ploughing of soil destroys
a) soil texture
b) soil structure
c) soil colour
d) soil type
186) potato late blight is caused by
a) fungus
b) bacterium
c) virus
d) actinomycetes
187) leaf spot with concentric zonations are observed in
a) cercospor
b) pyricularia
c) helminthosporium
d) alternaria
188) Banana bunchy top is caused by
a) fungus
b) bacteria
c) virus
d)phytoplasma
189) sesame phyllody is transmitted by
a) white fly
b) aphid
c) jassid
d) lace wing
190) fungi belonging to which sub-division is called as sac fungi?
a) basidiomycotina
b) ascomycotina
c) Mastigomycotina
d) deuteromycotina
191) In India, which state is popularly named as soya state?
a) andhra pradesh
b) madhya pradesh
c) uttar pradesh
d) tamil nadu
192) the highest protein is found in seeds of
a) bengal gram
b) green gram
c) red gram
d) soyabean
193) Most serious disease of sugar cane is
a) red stripe
b) red rot
c) wilt
d) smut
194) the most common amendment used for reclamation of alkali lands is
a) Lime
b) gypsum
c) tank silt
d) FYM
195) biofertilizer suitable for red gram is
a) rhizobium
b) azospirillum
c) azolla
d) azotobacter
196) cotton is susceptible to drift of
a) Lasso
b) stomp
c) machete
d) 2,4-D
197) The appearence of an organism in a given environment is called as
a) genotype
b) genome
c) idiotype
d) phenotype
198) a windmill suitable for water lifting is
a) single blade type
b) double blade type
c) triple blade type
d) multiple blade type
199) the major protein in whet flour is
a) zein
b) gluten
c) oryzenin
d) hordenine
200) type of moisture that can be removed by common dying techniques is
a) equillibrium moisture
b) total moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
Assistant Grade-III in General, Depot, Technical and Account Cadres & Hindi Posts (AG-II & Typists) in FCI-2012
For result and number of total candidate information – click here
Paper II-
Cadre post code
General A
Accounts B
Depot D
Paper –III
Cadre post code
Technical C
Exam date -15-04-2012 (Sunday)
Exam format-
Question - Objective Type
Paper-II
(a)Quantitative Methods (50 Questions) 100 Marks
(b) English Language & Comprehension (100 Questions) 100 Marks
Time – 10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon
*40 minutes extra for VH candidates.
Paper-III
Biological Sciences (200 questions) 200 Marks
Time -2.00PM to 4.00 PM
*40 minutes extra for VH candidates
ENGLISH PRACTICE EXERCISE- 3
Smith came to India to learn something about her culture and custom.
she cut the strip of photographs and gave one to her friend.
on the date of the function he will be in delhi.
it was fine summer day.
what have you been doing all the day?
you have to answer each questions on a new page?
each of them did not have a scooter.
they have each their own problems.
we are fascinated by life in earth.
man has lived in the earth for many years.
At the end she decided to go abroad.
In the end of the dinner prathibha spoke.
We make tables, chairs and cots etc..
He has ever arrived late.
Have you always been to Delhi?
There are n't enough jobs for everybody in our country.
The teacher is supposed to give a good example.
They go out on sundays and this sunday is not an exception.
our house faces to the river.
Hyderabad is far from Delhi.
Agra is n't a long way from Mathura.
She doesn't go swimming because she fears of the water.
If there is a gas leak, the building will go on fire.
She got off her car to inspect the damage.
Smith was judged guilty of murder.
They agreed to give him the half of the money.
They future of the country must not be in the hand of one man.
If she drinks tea, she gets headache.
They said that they were going on holidays to Ooty.
Anitha has just come back from holidays.
It is time Avanti made a holiday.
Satya is in hurry to catch the bus.
Her duty is to look after ill children.
Her mother is seriously sick.
Nobody cried in the funeral.
Gayatri is a lecturer in the university of hyderabad.
As it was raining, Archana stayed indoor.
Is cricket an indoors game?
The lorry was badly injure in the accident.
Two persons were badly damaged in the accident.
Juno was invited in a party on Sunday.
They invited Raju to a drink at the club.
Can you understand computer jargons well?
If I have the tools, I can make the job in an hour.
Don't say the same joke again and again.
Hard work is the key of our success.
Sudha went out to know what was happening.
I know that she is speaking lies.
They went to enjoy a luxury life.
Are you becoming bad?
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ENGLISH PRACTICE EXERCISE-2
1. Ten candidates have passed one failed
2. He succeeded because he works hard.
3. Our teacher said that the earth moved round the sun.
4. We start early lest we shall miss the train.
5. I hoped to immediately reply to your letter.
6. I should have liked to have gone there.
7. He seems to enjoy his stay in Madras.
8.Sitting on the gate, a scorpion stung him.
9. He might went there.
10. They were punished for come late.
11. I shall wait for you till you will finish your work.
12. I have bought a cycle yesterday.
13. When I reached the station, the train already left.
14. How long are you working in this office?
15. I have not got none.
16. Nothing more can be done presently.
17. He will come back at present.
18. He tried hardly to win the race.
19. She has eaten hard anything today.
20. The news is much surprising.
21. I was very surprised at hearing the news.
22. The criminal was hung last week.
23. Although she was tired, but she still went on working.
24. Both ravi as well as raja were present there.
25. He not only lost his ticket, but also his luggage.
26. He washed neither his hands or his face.
27. No sooner do I finish this book then I shall begin another.
28. Hardly did I reach the station, than the train left it.
29. Please send the parcel to the address above-mentioned.
30. When I was a boy, I wanted to go to abroad.
31. According to us, we should not spend money on luxuries.
32. In the opinion of the writer, the government must pay attention to public opinion.
33. After the match, I had an ache in my legs.
34. My father couldn't afford paying for my education.
35. It is time I gave you your books again.
36. I would like to meet some of you back.
37. Soon he will be of my age.
38. As all you know her name is prasanti.
39. All of they know that john is a criminal.
40. She avoids to talk to strangers.
41. Do you believe ghosts?
42. She could not believe in everything he said.
43. Ramani is busy with doing the house work.
44. Please call to 802645.
45, Please call Priyanka with number 53407.
46. the committee is composed by a professor, two readers, three lecturers and a student representative.
47. You must keep the machine in a good condition.
48. You have to confirm us whether you have received the goods in time.
49. Ravi constantly got into trouble.
50. It is not possible to contact with them now.
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ENGLISH PRACTICE EXERCISE-1
I am giving the incorrect sentences..try them and when you are done ask me for the key.
1. The audience are requested to be in its seats.
2. The sceneries of kashmir are beautiful.
3. The cattle is grazing in the field.
4. The people of our village is rich
5. Where is my spectacle?
6. Riches has wings.
7. The sheep are grazing in the field.
8. Time and Tide wait for no man
9. Bread and butter are his only food.
10. The chief minister, with his colleagues have offered to resign.
11. Either Ravi or raju have done this.
12. Neither of these two applicants were qualified.
13. One of my teachers live next door to me.
14. Gulliver's travels were written by Swift.
15. The united states have a big navy
16. Fifty thousand rupees are a large sum.
17. The committee have submitted its report.
18. The jury was divided in its opinion.
19. He gave me a ten rupees note
20. Each of these boys has done their homework.
21. Both Raju and Ravi have done his homework.
22. The collector and District magistrate is not negligent in their duty.
23. Neither Ravi nor Raju has done their homework.
24. I, You and he must work together.
25. You, they and we must work together.
26. If I were him, I would not do it.
27. Let You and I do it.
28. These presents are for you and I.
29. Himself did it.
30. One must not boast his own success.
31. Any one of these two roads leads to the railway station.
32. Neither of these three boys did their homework.
33. The two brothers loved one another.
34. Please excuse me being late.
35. The boys, who was lazy were punished.
36. I, who is your king will lead you.
37. He is such a man who I honour.
38. This is the same man who came yesterday.
39. Which is the best of the two?
40. He is wiser than brave.
41. He is cleverer than anyboy in the class
42. He is strongest of all other men.
43. He is the most cleverest boy in the class.
44. He is more wiser than his brother.
45. He is senior than me.
46. It is the most unique thing.
47. He is the wisest and honest worker in the office.
48. He is my older brother.
49. I am eighteen years old and my sister sixteen.
50. He never has, and never will take such strong measures.
Posted by Mohan Talari at 1:39 AM No comments:
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Sunday, September 2, 2012
FCI BIOLOGY PAPER-2012
TEST FORM NUMBER: 012 KP 2
1. The ecological niche of an organism denotes
a) the habit of an organism
b) its status within a particular community
c) its structure and feeding habits
d) the climatic factors of an organism
2. Rubber is obtained from the latex of___________
a) stem of Euphorbia spp.
b) stem of Carica papaya
c) stem of Hevea brasiliensis
d) fruits of Achras sapota
3. which of the following does not require external water for fertilization?
a) Mosses
b) Cycads
c) Ferns
d) Liverworts
4. The sporangia of a conifer are located on the
a) scales of cones
b) tips of the needles
c) base of the needles
d) axis of the branches
5. The transfusion tissue is present in the___________leaves.
a) Dryopteris
b) Cycas
c) Pinus
d) Cycas and pinus
6. The number of Cotyledons in Pinus seeds are
a) single
b) two
c) three
d) many
7. The conical habit of Pinus tree is because of
a) efficiency of water movement in plants
b) mutual competition between branches
c) competition between neighbouring pine trees for sunlight
d) effect of auxin on the growth of stem tip and axillary branches
8. The largest ovules are found amon
a) Monocots
b) Dicots
c) Gymnosperms
d) Angiosperms
9. __________is an example of a plant which bears seeds but not fruit.
a) cycas
b) pea
c) pinus
d) selaginella
10.Which one is not true regarding energy flow through ecosystem?
a) Energy inflows balance outflows
b) Even energy transfer is accompined by dispersion of energy into non available heat
c) the organism near the beginning of the food chain gets smaller amount of energy
d) A shorter food chain can support a larger amount of organisms.
11. Spot the organism that are not symbionts
a) Rhizobium and root of legume plant
b) Nostoc and coralloid root of cycas
c) algae and fungi
d) Vanda and a n angiosperm plant
12. the natural cycling of carbon between the organisms and the environment is accomplished through the process of
a) photosynthesis and respiration
b) radiation and immigration
c) fermentation and oxidation
d) Isolation and dispersal
13. Motile sperm cells are found in all of the following except
a) cycas
b) funaria
c) pteris
d) rhizopus
14. ___________is an example of symbiotic association of an organism
a) Algae
b) Fungi
c) Bacteria
d) Root nodule of legume plant
15. Gymnosperms are characterised by
a) naked seeds
b) seed enclosed in fruits
c) winged seed
d) multiple sperms
16. ______ is the edible part of pinus seed
a) pericarp
b) Female gametophyte
c) Diploid perisperm
d) Endosperm
17. The tissue in the roots of Vanda that absorbs water from the atmosphere is called
a) Aerenchyma
b) Xylem
c) Phloem
D) Velamen
18. Quiescent centre is present in
a) root apex
b) shoot apex
c) Vegetative apex
d) flower apex
19) Tunica and corpus organization occurs in
a) Root apex
b) shoot apex
c) Cambium
d) Inter-calary meristems
20) Which of the following tissued form the bulk of storage organ?
a) parenchyma
b) collenchyma
c) sclerenchyma
d) Aerenchyma
21) In a forest ecosystem green plants are
a) the primary producers
b) the secondary consumers
c) the decomposers
d) both secondary consumers and decomposers
22) Various modifications in the form and structure in the leaves of xerophytes are meant
a) to protect from air
b) to protect form excess transpiration
c) to check excess liberation of CO2
d) to help in absorption of O2
23) Etiolation in plants is due to
a) Total darkness
b) Full sunlight
c) Vitamin deficiency
d) Virus disease
24) Sunken stomata are found in
a) Epiphytes
b) Hydrophytes
c) Mesophytes
d) Xerophytes
25) Opuntia is a cactus which is a
a) ephemeral animal
b) Succulent
c) Non-succulent
d) Cladode
26) The ecological factors of soil and its enivironment and their interactions with the growth of plants comes under the following factors
a) Biotic factors
b) Abiotic factors
c) Edaphic factors
d) Climatic factors
27) ________is an example of a free floating hydrophyte
a) Eichhornia
b) vallisneria
c) Nymphaea
d) Typha
28) An ecosystem cannot continue functioning without a constant input of energy because
a) it is lost at each trophic level
b) it flows in an ecosystem that lacks organisms that store energy
c) an ecosystem includes decomposers in its community
d) of climate change and fast urbanization
29) The largest amount of water that is available for the plants from soil is
a) Gravitational water
b) Capillary water
c) Hygroscopic water
d) Soil water vapour
30) Polytene chromosomes are found in
a) Salivary glands of men
b) salivary glands of animals
c) salivary glands of women
d) salivary glands of Drosphila
31. what are the chromosomes with more than two chromatids called?
a) Lampubrush chromosomes
b) Polytene chromosomes
c) Acrocentric chromosomes
d) Allosomes
32. Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in
a) chromosome DNA
b) plasmid
c) RNA
d) Polymerase
33. A codon refers to
a) a unit of recombination
b) a unit that can undergo mutation
c) a set of bases in DNA which can code one amino acid.
d) any functional unit of DNA
34. ___________helps in DNA replication.
a) Amylase
b) Ligase
c) Luciferase
d) Hexokinase
35.___________enzyme that helps in DNA replication
a) nucleotidase
b) Arginase
c) DNA polymerase
d) Protease
36. A color blind man marries the daughter of a color blind person. then in their progeny
a) none of their daughters are color blind
b) all their daughters are color blind
c) all their sons are color blind
d) half their sons are color blind
37) There is no marking of expression of genes in Neurospora because
a) it has a short generation span
b) it is haploid
c) it requires minimum number of nutrients
d) it is diploid
38) Tyloses are balloon-like ingrowths seen in vessels of
a) primary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma
b) secondary xylem developing from adjoining parenchyma
c) primary xylem developing from adjoining fibres
d) secondary xylem developing from adjoining fibres
39) which of the following statements is wrong?
a) Primary growth causes increase in height whereas secondary growth accounts for increase in diameter
b) the bark is a tissue outside cortex
c) the cambium is composed of two kinds of initials
d) In woody plants cambium functions for few years
40) ___________is the characterestic of a vascular bundle of monocot stem.
a) open and surrounded by a sclerenchyma bundle sheath
b) closed and not surrounded by a bundle sheath
c) closed and surrounded by a bundle sheath
d) open and not surrounded by a bundle sheath
41) Parenchymatous tissue is charecterized by
a) uniform thickening
b) thickening of the corners
c) lignified walls
d) intercellular spaces
42) cambium is considered a lateral meristem because
a) it increases the height and diameter of a stem
b) it gives rise to lateral branches
c) it increases the girth of a plant
d) it increases the length of a plant
43) primary growth is caused by or the length of a plant axis increases by
a) apical meristem
b) Lateral meritem
c) Dermatogen
d) plerome
44) A meristem may be defined as the group of cells which
a) do not divide
b) conserve food and fight against dio-stresses
c) divide continuously to give rise to new cells.
d) elongate and add to the group of cells
45) knowing that albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man, presence of albinism in the children borne to a normal couple proves that
a) both the mother and father are heterozygous for albinism
b) the father is homozygous normal but the mother is heterozygous
c) the father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterzygous
d) father and mother are homozygous normal
46) In an E.coli according to the operon theory an operator gene combines with
a) inducer gene to 'switch on'
b) regulator gene to 'switch off'
c) regular protein to 'switch off' structural gene transcription
d) regular protein to 'switch on' structural gene trasncription
47) which of the following is haploid gymnosperms?
a) pollen grains, megaspore , root
b) pollen grains, megaspore, nucellus
c) Megaspore mother cell, root, leaf
d) Endosperm, pollen grains, megaspore
48) Cycas has two cotyledons but is not included in angiosperms because of
a) stems like monocot
b) large ovule
c) naked ovule
d) compound leaves
49) chromosome theory of heredity was formulated for the first time on the basis of the following..
a) chromosomes exhibit segregation and independent assortment during meiosis
b)there are a fixed number of chromosomes in each cell of an organism
c) chromosomes are the main structures in nucleus
d) determination of sex is through sex chromosomes
50) self-replicating cytoplasmic particles are capable of transmitting traits in inheritance to
a) mutagens
b) regular genes
c) plasma genes
d) operator genes
51) Nyctalopia is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin
a) A
b) B
c) D
e) E
52) Gout is characterised by the accumulation of
a) Urea
b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid
d) Ornithine
53) Number of polar bodies produced after first meiotic division during oogenesis is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
54) Centrolecithal eggs are found in
a) fishes
b) mammals
c) insects
d) reptiles
55) The indian born scientist who received the Nobel prize for having synthesised " Polyribonucliotides" is
a) Marshall warren Nirenberg
b) Venkataraman ramakrishnan
c) Amartya sen
d) Har gobind khorana
56) Baldness in man is an example for_______genes
a) sex-influenced
b) sex-limited
c) x-linked
d) z-linked
57) polymorphism may be developed by ____________selection
a) natural
b) directional
c) stabilizing
d) disruptive
58) Assertion (A) : Sodium ions move slower than glucose molecule across the plasma membrane
Reason (R) : Plasma membrane contain protein
a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct reason for A
b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct reason for A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
59) The niche of a population is the
a) place where it lives
b) geographical area it covers
c) set of conditions and resources it uses
d) set of interactions it has with other populationss
60) The science of improving the hereditary qualities of human species of future generations is called
a) genetics
b) euthenics
c) Epigenesis
d) Eugenics
61) The deficiency of___________vitamin causes Beriberi
a) Riboflavin
b) Niacin
c) Pantothenic acid
d) Thiamine
62) The synthesis of prothrombin by the liver cells is stimulated by the vitamin
a) A
c) K
c) E
d) D
63) Which one of the following minerals is essential for blood coagulation?
a) calcium
b) phosphorus
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium
64) Limulus is an example of a living fossil that belongs to
a) Onychophora
b) Arachnida
c) Mollusca
d) Ratitae
65) First recombinat vaccine is available for
a) HIV
b) small pox
c) hepatits B
d) Polio
66) Polio is spread through
a) Mosquito
b) water contamination
c) air contamination
d) direct contact
67) which of the following is not correct about the size of the organisms?
a) viruses- 0.07-0.10 microns
b) amoeba- 8.00-15.0 microns
c) Bacteria-0.5-2.50 microns
d) Euglena-100-200 microns
68) Acetylcholine is secreted by
a) Endothelial cells
b) nerve cells
c) brunner's cells
d) pancreatic exocrine cells
69) The term chromosome was coined by
a) w. flemming
b) w. waldeyer
c) Richard Altman
d) Seymour benzer
70) In which stage does the reduction in chromosome number takes during meiosis?
a) prophase-I
b) anaphase-I
c) Metaphase-I
d) Metaphase-II
71) A cross between an F1 hybrid and any one of the parents from which it is derived is
a) monohybrid cross
b) dihybrid cross
c) back cross
d) test cross
72) alpha-thassaemia major is
a) inability to synthesize adult haemoglobin
b) premature red blood cell destruction
c) haemolysis and shortening of red blood life span
d) no functional and separated delta and b-globin chain genes
73) crossing over brings
a) cytoplasmic reorganization
b) recombination of genes
c) complete linkage
d) no significant change
74) somatic hybrids are produced by
a) protoplasmic fusion
b) tissue culture
c) pollen culture
d) hybridoma process
75) ___________enzyme catalyses the removal of hydrogen from one substrate and passes it on to a second substrate.
a) oxidase
b) dehydrogenase
c) oxygenase
d) hydrolases
76) wilson's disease is due to the deficiency of
a) cobalt
b) iodine
c) copper
d) flourine
77) daily requirement of vitamin B1 is______mg
a) 1.5 to 2.0
b) 0.5 to 1.0
c) 3 to 5
d) 1 to 2
78) These enzymes exist in two or more forms which have the same function, but they differ physically and chemically..
a) Apoenzymes
b) multienzymes
c) exoenzymes
d) Isoenzymes
79) Choose the wrong pair
a) flames cells- platyhelminthes
b) Nephridium- Amphioxus
c) malphigian tubules-Insects
d) green glands- crustacea
80)Egg with minimal yolk evenly distributed called as
a) Isolecithal
b) Telolecithal
c) Alecithal
d) Centrolecithal
81) Hydrocholoric acid in the stomach is secreted by
a) Argentaffin cells
b) peptic cells
c) Mucous neck cells
d) Oxyntic cells
82) Enzyme sucrose converts sucrose into
a) Glucose+ Fructose
b) Glucose+ Glucose
c) Glucose+ Galactose
d) Glucose+ Maltose
83) If the centromere divides the chromosome into two unequal arms, it is termed as
a) telocentric
b) acroccentric
c) submetacentric
d) metacentric
84) ____________is an autoimmune disease.
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) meningitis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Hepatitis
85) Development of gut is called as
a) Neurogenesis
b) Notogenesis
c) Mesogenesis
d) Enterogenesis
86) The process by which cells gradually specialize to undergo changes in shape and function is known as ____________ differentiation.
a) morphological
b) physiological
c) chemical
d) cytological
87) which of the following statements is not correct about test tube baby?
a) this method provides baby to infertile couple
b) people who produce fertile egg but their health may not permit to bear children
c) it provides oppurtunity to get babies of desired sex.
d) the rate of success is high..
88) which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of cancer?
a) a tumour arises from an existing tissue or cells of the body
b) they have greater potentiality for growth and multiplication
c) they carry out the functions of normal adult cells
d) they have large and irregular nuclei..
89) carcinoma means
a) a tumour arising from any connective tissue
b) a tumour arising from fibrous tissues.
c) a tumour arising from epithelial cells.
d) tumours of bone
90) first land vertebrates - amphibians developed during _______ period
a) devonian
b) cambrian
c) ordovician
d) silurian
91) which of the following is not an arthropod character exhibited by peripatus?
a) clawed and pseud segmented walking legs
b) presence of thick cuticle
c) presence of trachea as respiratory organ
d) presence of antennae
92) select the correct sequence of evolution with reference to elephant
a) meritherium- stegodon-mammoth-palaemastodon-elephas-loxondonta
b) meritherium-mammoth-palaemastodon-stegodon-elephas-loxodonta
c) meritherium-palaemastodon-stegodon-mammoth-elephas-loxodont
d) meritherium-palaemastodon-elephas-stegodon-mammoth-loxodonta
93) Assertion (A) : Dark-skinned people and blacks are more prone to UV exposure.
Reason (R) : Efficiency of UV rays as carcinogen depends on melanin pigmentation.
a) A is correct, but R is wrong
b) A is wrong, but R is correct
c) Both A and R are correct, and R is the explanation for A
d) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the explanation for A
94) which of these is a non-essential amino acid?
a) valine
b) Glycine
c) Lycine
d) Tryptophan
95) Suppression of gene of one locus by a gene in other locus is called
a) Epistasis
b) Pleiotrophy
c) Co-dominance
d) Incomplete dominance
96) Mobile segments of DNA that can disrupt the function of the gene that they insert into and cause mutation are known as
a) meiosis
b) transposons
c) mutagens
d) missense
97) the type of interaction between two species where protozoan Trichonympha lives in the gut of termites for cellulose digestion is referred to as
a) commensalism
b) mutualism
c) neutralism
d) parasitism
98) centres for regulation of heart beat are situated in the brain at
a) cerebral hemispheres
b) medulla oblongata
c) cerebellum
d) pons varolii
99) A: Insulin increases conversion of glucose into glycogen
B: Insulin increases the oxidation of glucose
c: Insulin reduces blood sugar level
a) A and B only are correct
b) A and C only are correct
c) A, B and C are correct and A and B are not the reason for C
d) A, B and C all are correct and A and B are the correct reason for C
100) which of these is secreted by corpus luteum in a pregnant woman
a) progesterone
b) estrogen
c) androgen
d) relaxin
101) Amino acids are used as food additives for which of the following reasons?
a) As natural antibiotics
b) As natural growth inhibitors
c) For nutritive purposes
d) As antioxidants
102) Lycopene is an important antioxidant normally present in high levels in
a) Artichokes
b) Banans
c) Tomatoes
d) Soyabeans
103) The most common hydrocarbon in naturl gas is
a) methane
b) butane
c) propane
d) ethane
104) The main effect of DDT on birds is
a) fewer feathers
b) reduced growth
c) blindness
d) thinner egg shell
105) which of the following is most hazardous?
a) crop waste
b) yard waste
c) paper waste
d) battery
106) The fertile part of soil is
a) mineral matter
b) soil air
c) humus
d) soil water
1o7) the main source of air pollution is
a) factory exhaust
b) automobile exhaust
c) firewood
d) bad breath
108) majority of all living species on the earth are found in
a) Tundra region
b) antarctica
c) tropical rainforest
d) temperate rainforest
109) cell organelle found only in plants
a) mitochondria
b) plastids
c) golgi complex
d) ribosomes
110) enzymes are polymers of
a) amino acids
b) fatty acids
c) sugar
d) proteins
111) which trait can effectively be conferred into a plant by a transgene?
a) resistance to insects
b) resistance to humans
c) tolerance to light
d) tolerance to snowfall
112) what is the general term used to describe the degradation of pollutants using a biological approach?
a) biostimulation
b) bioremediation
c) biodegradation
d) bioprocessing
113) which genera of micro organisms have the most diverse pathways for bioremediation?
a) pseudomonas
b) salmonella
c) legionella
d) colletotrichum
114) what is nanotechnology?
a) the individual manipulation of molecules and atoms to create materials with novel or improved properties
b) the creation of new terms to describe very small, almost unimaginable particles in physics.
c) the terms used to describe the size of cellular components
d) the transition of molecular biology into the physical science..
115) the colorless, odourless, tasteless, radioactive gas present within homes and buildings is
a) argon
b) radon
c) xenon
d) krypton
116) pedology is the study of
a) rock
b) coal
c) ecosystem
d) soil
117) the absorption of zinc in the human digestive tract my be inhibited by the presence of
a) plant fibre
b) animal fibre
c) water
d) oil
118) A species that is unique to a defined place or region and not found anywhere else is called
a) endangered
b) endemic
c) indigenous
d) extinct
119) the main cause of global rising sea levels is
a) thermal expansion
b) melting glaciers
c) melting of polar ice
d) melting of antarctica
120) anemometer is used to measure
a) wind density
b) wind velocity
c) wind speed
d) wind gravity
121) ketone bodies are produced by
a) brain
b) liver
c) kidney
d) muscles
122) normal urine has the following components except
a) chlorides
b) glucose
c) urea
d) creatinine
123) the most penetrating rays are
a) alpha rays
b) beta rays
c) gamma rays
d) delta rays
124) at what stage of cell division does the centromere divide?
a) prophase
b) telophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
125) genetic mapping is based on the linkage between
a) loci
b) muton
c) recon
d) cistron
126) most of the plants obtain nitrogen from the soil in the form of
a) nitrate
b) nitrite
c) nitric acid
d) nitrogen gas
127) the shape of metacentric chromosome is
a) T-shaped
b) rod shaped
c) S- shaped
d) V-shaped
128) which of the following is not an autoimmune disorder?
a) diabetes mellitus
b) haemolytic anemia
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Cholera
129) The natural anticoagulant of blood in the vessels is
a) EDTA
b) oxalate
c) citrate
d) Heparin
130) western blotting technique is used to detect the
a) proteins
b) DNA
c) m RNA
d) r RNA
131) which of the following is not a renewable energy resource?
a) wood
b) wave
c) biogas
d) natural gas
132) streptomycin is used to cure the disease caused by
a) bacteria
b) virus
c) yeast
d) fungi
133) antihaemorrhagic vitamin is also called as
a) E
b) B
c) D
d) B12
134) The study of action of drugs is known as
a) pharmacognosy
b) pharmacology
c) pathology
d) parasitology
135) Cholesterol level in blood is increased in all except
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Obsructive jaundice
c) Hypoparathyroidism
d) Hperthyroidism
136) COLA refers to
a) cystine, ornithine, leucine, arginine
b) cystine, ornithine, lysine, alanine
c) cystine, ornithine, leucine, alanine
d) cystine, ornithine, lysine, arginine
137) Erythropoietin, the hormone involved in synthesis of RBCs, is released to blood circulation by
a) RBC
b) bone marrow erythroid progenitor cells
c) renal cells
d) hepatic cells
138) which among the following does not bind calcium?
a) calcitonin
b) calbindin
c) calcineurin
d) calmodulin
139) plasma bicarbonate is transported across red blood cells by
a) spectrin
b) ankyrin
c) carbonic anhydrase
d) Band 3 protein
140) Assertion (A) : animals store energy in the form of triglycerides
Reason (R) : triglycerides can be converted to glucose whenever needed
a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true and R is false
d) A is false and R is true
141) the device used to introduce air into the liquid in a fermentor is termed bas
a) impeller
b) baffles
c) sparger
d) thermostat
142) the indian collection of Industrial micro organism is located at
a) chandigarh
b) pune
c) punjab
d) delhi
143) the first virus crystallised by stanley in 1935 was
a) cauliflower mosaic virus
b) tobacco mosaic virus
c) Gemini virus
d) wound tumour virus
144) during world war II the microorganism used as an agent of bio-terrorism was
a) bacillus anthracis
b) brucella abortus
c) Yersinia pestis
d) clostridium botulinum
145) the complete viral particle is known as
a) virion
b) viroid
c) prion
d) virusoid
146) the discovery of human blood group was made by
a) Emil Von Behring
b) Ehrlich
c) Landsteiner
d) Milstein
147) Pencillin the wonder drug was discovered first by alexander fleming from the culture of
a) pencillium notatum
b) pencillium chrysogenum
c) pencillium funiculosum
d) penicillium stoloniferum
148) the term cistron means a
a) unit of function
b) unit of mutation
c) unit of recombination
d) unit of linkage
149) who developed the Rabies vaccine?
a) robert koch
b) robert gallo
c) walther hesse
d) Lousi pasteur
150) Sugar in the nuclotide is
a) hexose
b) pentose
c) priose
d) heptose
151) more dominant group of miccroorgnisms in the soil is
a) bacteria
b) fungi
c) actinomycetes
d) protozoa
152) TDT is
a) thermal delay time
b) thermal divide time
c) thermal death temperature
d) thermal death time
153) the first viral pathogen discovered was
a) HIV
b) TMV
c) HPV
d) YMV
154) plague is caused by
a) bacterium
b) Fungus
c) Alga
d) virus
155) Selman A walkman was awarded nobel prize for the discover of
a) pencillin
b) streptomyces
c) streptomycin
d) pencillium
156) Robert koch has been awarded nobel prize in 1905 for the discovery of
1) antrax
2) cholera
3) tuberculosis
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 alone
d) 3 alone
157) organisms which utilize simple inorganic compounds are termed as
a) phototrophs
b) autotrophs
c) heterotrophs
d) nectortrophs
158) cross wall formation during cell division is accelerated by
a) ribosomes
b) lysosomes
c) endosomes
d) mesosomes
159) the group of bacteria which includes obligte intracellular parsites is
a) Rickettsiasis
b) mollicutes
c) Archaeobacteria
d) actinomycetes
160) which of the following methods is employed for disposal of sludge that is contaminated with heavy metals heavily?
a) incinertion
b) drying
c) Landfilling
d) Composting
161) The addition of sugar to an egg_____ the heat stability or proteins.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) increases and then decreases
162) Deteriortion of fat in the presence of oxygen is due to the enzyme
a) Lipase
b) Protease
c) Lipoxygenase
d) peptidase
163) In cheese manufacture curd is formed by the addition of
a) renin
b) protease
c) peptidase
d) amylase
164) Excessive intake of polished rice causes deficiency of
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) K
165) The fat content of toned milk should be
a) less than 1.5%
b) less than 3%
c) more than 3%
d) more than 5%
166) Bitter pit is a
a) chemicl injury
b) physiological injury
c) mechanical injury
d) microbial injury
167) wht is the TSS of fruit syrup?
a) 20%
b) 45%
c) 65%
d) 80%
168) Diethyl pyrocarbonate is used as a preservative for
a) spices
b) fruit juices
c) nuts
d) vegetables
169) a toxic element which may contaminate food is
a) zinc
b) copper
c) lead
d) calcium
170) Tofu is a processed product of
a) Kidney bean
b) navy bean
c) broad bean
d) soyabean
171) Appertizing is a process called canning and is named after
a) nicholes apert
b) micheal apert
c) john apert
d) williams apert
172) consider the following statements
A. Butter is an example for oil in water emulsion
B. Milk is an example for water in oil emulsion
a) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
b) Statement B is correct and A is wrong
c) Statements A and B are wrong
d) Statements A and B are correct
173) consider the following statements
A. Soyabean contains 40% protein and 20 % fat.
B. The quality of protein is poor because of the presence of the trypsin inhibitor
a) statement A is correct and the explanation given in B is wrong
b) statement A is wrong and the explanation given in B is correct
c) statements A and B are correct
d) statements A and B are wrong
174) choose the best answer
The toxin found in groundnut kernel is
a) aflotoxin
b) patulin
c) aminotoxin
d) paratoxin
175) Decomposition of carbohydrates by microorganisms or enzymes is called as
a) pasturisation
b) fermentation
c) canning
d) dextrinisation
176) consider the following statements:
A. Freezing at very low temperature (-60 degrees C) is cryogenic freezing
B. The refregerants used are oxygen and neon
a) A and B are true
B) A is true, B is false
c) B is true, A is false
d) A and B are false
177) consider the following statements:
A. Milk is rich in calcium and vitamin D
B. On heating milk combines with casein and is converted to calcium caseinate
a) statement A is correct and B is wrong
b) statement A and B are correct
c) statements A and B are wrong
d) statement A is wrong and B is correct
178) Freeze crack is seen when foods are frozen by
a) air freezing
b) contact freezing
c) immersion freezing
d) cryogenic freezing
179) hedonic rating test is used to measure
a) sensitivity
b) preference
c) difference
d) quality
180) puffed products are dried to a moisture content less than
a) 12%
b) 8%
c) 4%
d) 16%
181) in which region of india, is shifting cultivation widely followed?
a) south
b) north
c) north-east
d) north-west
182) the toxic substance gossypol is formed in
a) rapeseed
b) lineseed
c) cotton
d) fababean
183) pigeonpea sterility mosaic is transmitted by
a) aceria cajani
b) besmisia tabaci
c) Myzus persicae
d) orosius albicinctus
184) the state which ranks first in sugrcane productivity in India is
a) maharashtra
b) uttar pradesh
c) tamil nadu
d) karnataka
185) frequent ploughing of soil destroys
a) soil texture
b) soil structure
c) soil colour
d) soil type
186) potato late blight is caused by
a) fungus
b) bacterium
c) virus
d) actinomycetes
187) leaf spot with concentric zonations are observed in
a) cercospor
b) pyricularia
c) helminthosporium
d) alternaria
188) Banana bunchy top is caused by
a) fungus
b) bacteria
c) virus
d)phytoplasma
189) sesame phyllody is transmitted by
a) white fly
b) aphid
c) jassid
d) lace wing
190) fungi belonging to which sub-division is called as sac fungi?
a) basidiomycotina
b) ascomycotina
c) Mastigomycotina
d) deuteromycotina
191) In India, which state is popularly named as soya state?
a) andhra pradesh
b) madhya pradesh
c) uttar pradesh
d) tamil nadu
192) the highest protein is found in seeds of
a) bengal gram
b) green gram
c) red gram
d) soyabean
193) Most serious disease of sugar cane is
a) red stripe
b) red rot
c) wilt
d) smut
194) the most common amendment used for reclamation of alkali lands is
a) Lime
b) gypsum
c) tank silt
d) FYM
195) biofertilizer suitable for red gram is
a) rhizobium
b) azospirillum
c) azolla
d) azotobacter
196) cotton is susceptible to drift of
a) Lasso
b) stomp
c) machete
d) 2,4-D
197) The appearence of an organism in a given environment is called as
a) genotype
b) genome
c) idiotype
d) phenotype
198) a windmill suitable for water lifting is
a) single blade type
b) double blade type
c) triple blade type
d) multiple blade type
199) the major protein in whet flour is
a) zein
b) gluten
c) oryzenin
d) hordenine
200) type of moisture that can be removed by common dying techniques is
a) equillibrium moisture
b) total moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
Wednesday, September 5, 2012
IBPS-RRB PROBATIONARY OFFICERS SEP 2 2012 EXPECTED CUT OFF MARKS
IBPS RRB Probationary Officers Exam Was held on sep 2 2012.The exam was easier compared to the last ibps exam conducted for other public sector banks on june 17.
Coming to the expected cut off marks if u can score 70% or above marks (not standardised score)u can expect the job.In the particular exam you need to get 140 or above to be on safe side,these students have high chances of getting job.
Students who are getting between 120-140 can expect interview and getting job depends on your interview marks.There are as many as 83 banks participating in this so dont worry folks any thing can happen.
MARKS U NEED TO GET TO BE IN interview ZONE-
REASONING-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE-MARKS 40-30
NUMERICAL ABILITY-DIFFICULTY-ABOVE AVERAGE 30-20
ENGLISH-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 30-22
GENERAL AWARENESS-DIFFICULTY-BELOW AVERAGE 30-24
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 12-17
Coming to the expected cut off marks if u can score 70% or above marks (not standardised score)u can expect the job.In the particular exam you need to get 140 or above to be on safe side,these students have high chances of getting job.
Students who are getting between 120-140 can expect interview and getting job depends on your interview marks.There are as many as 83 banks participating in this so dont worry folks any thing can happen.
MARKS U NEED TO GET TO BE IN interview ZONE-
REASONING-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE-MARKS 40-30
NUMERICAL ABILITY-DIFFICULTY-ABOVE AVERAGE 30-20
ENGLISH-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 30-22
GENERAL AWARENESS-DIFFICULTY-BELOW AVERAGE 30-24
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE-DIFFICULTY-AVERAGE 12-17
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